another one idaho
When Catholics pray to Mary and the other saints in Heaven they are not bypassing Christ, whom they acknowledge as the sole Mediator between God and man. They are going to Christ through Mary and the other saints. They are asking Mary and other saints to intercede for them before the throne of Christ in Heaven. ``For the continual prayer of a just man availeth much.'' (James 5:16). How much more availing is the unceasing prayer of the sinless Mother of Our Lord Jesus Christ! St. Paul asked his fellow Christians to intercede for him: ``Brethren, pray for us.'' (2 Thess. 3:1). And again: ``I beseech you therefore, brethren, through our Lord Jesus Christ, and by the charity of the Holy Ghost, that you help me in your prayers for me to God...'' (Rom. 15:30). Christ must particularly approve of our going to Him through Mary, His Blessed Mother, because He chose to come to us through her. And at Cana, He performed His first miracle after a word from His Mother. (John 2:2-11).
It is clear in Sacred Scripture that the saints in Heaven will intercede for us before the throne of Christ if they are petitioned in prayer (Apoc. or Rev. 8:3-4), and it is clear in the records of primitive Christianity that the first Christians eagerly sought their intercession. Wrote St. John Chrysostom in the fourth century: ``When thou perceivest that God is chastening thee, fly not to His enemies, but to His friends, the martyrs, the saints, and those who were pleasing to Him, and who have great power.'' If the saints have such power with God, how much more His own Mother.





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Mary was a sinner...the
Mary was a sinner...the saints are sinners...we are sinners....how can you say that mary wasn't a sinner??
I believe I have proven that...would you like me to post the passages again...
Why ask another sinner to pray for a sinner....
Elizabeth said this to her
Elizabeth said this to her when she visited her and elizabeth was pregnant with john the baptist.
"blessed art thou among women and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, how is it that the Mother of the Lord (mater tou kyrios) comes to me" (Lk 1:42-43).
She was blessed among other women.
In the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God to a city of Galilee named Nazareth,
27. to a virgin betrothed to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name was Mary.
28. And he came to her and said, "Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with you!"
29. But she was greatly troubled at the saying, and considered in her mind what sort of greeting this might be.
30. And the angel said to her, "Do not be afraid, Mary, for you have found favor with God.
31. And behold, you will conceive in your womb and bear a son, and you shall call his name Jesus.
32. He will be great, and will be called the Son of the Most High; and the Lord God will give to him the throne of his father David,
33. and he will reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there will be no end."
34. And Mary said to the angel, "How shall this be, since I have no husband?"
35. And the angel said to her, "The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you; therefore the child to be born will be called holy, the Son of God.
36. And behold, your kinswoman Elizabeth in her old age has also conceived a son; and this is the sixth month with her who was called barren.
37. For with God nothing will be impossible."
38. And Mary said, "Behold, I am the handmaid of the Lord; let it be to me according to your word." And the angel departed from her.
The RSV has ``O favored one'' in place of the Catholic edition's ``full of grace'' (gratia plena), which is the traditional interpretation of the Greek, as passed down by St. Jerome in the Vulgate. Even setting aside St. Jerome's outstanding personal sanctity, the fact that he performed the translation only a couple hundred years after the writing of the Gospel, when knowledge of the dialect of its composition was still in recent memory, should lend authority to this translation.
In addition the tense in Greek indicates ``from the beginning,'' implying that, that Mary was full of grace from HER conception by a special act of God (cf. the passage from Bishop Sheen, below).
In verse 34, Mary inquires of the angel how she is to conceive, not because she does not believe (cf. verse 45, below), but because she wants to be able to cooperate fully with the plan of God. Jewish law of the time allowed marital relations between a bethrothed couple. Mary's question therefore seems out of place: clearly she could conceive by Joseph even then, so lacking a husband was not the issue. Therefore a better translation is, ``because I do not know man.'' The best explanation for her question is that she already knew that she was not to have relations with any man, that is, she was to be perpetually a virgin because she was set aside specially by God.
This question of Mary's reveals her humility and her keen desire to follow God's will. The angel has just told her that she is to be the mother of the Messiah-- the dream of every Jewish girl. Instead of jumping at the opportunity and possible abandoning her special, previous calling from God, she tries to discover how the two are compatible.
Mary's humble acceptance of the plan of God (verse 38) is a model for all Christians.
Bishop Sheen Explains the Immaculate Conception!!!!!
Just suppose that you could have pre-existed your own mother, in much the same way that an artist pre-exists his painting. Furthermore, suppose that you had an infinite power to make your mother anything that you pleased, just as a great artist like Raphael has the power of realizing his artistic ideals. Suppose you had this double power, what kind of mother would you have made for yourself? Would you have made her of such a type that would make you blush because of her unwomanly and unmotherlike actions? Would you have in any way stained and soiled her with the selfishness that would make her unattractive not only to you, but to your fellow-man? Would you have made her exteriorly and interiorly of such a character as to make you ashamed of her, or would you have made her, so far as human beauty goes, the most beautiful woman in the world; and so far as beauty of the soul goes, one who would radiate every virtue, every manner of kindness and charity and loveliness; one who by the PURITY of her life and her mind and her heart would be an inspiration not only to you, but even to your fellow-men, so that all would look up to her as the very incarnation of what is best in motherhood?
Now, if you who are an imperfect being and who have not the most delicate conception of all that is fine in life would have wished for the loveliest of mothers, do you think that our Blessed Lord, who not only pre-existed His own mother, but who had an infinite power to make her just what He chose, would, in virtue of all the infinite delicacy of His spirit make her any less pure and loving and beautiful than you would have made your own mother? If you who hate selfishness, would have made her selfless, and you who hate ugliness, would have made her beautiful, do you not think that the Son of God who hates sin would have made His own mother sinless, and He who hates moral ugliness, would have made her immaculately beautiful?
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i just repiled to both your
i just repiled to both your posts i dont know if you got them but i did. you might want to look at the forum again. and why havnt you replied to my post about repitious prayer!!!!!
Wow you are putting mary
Wow you are putting mary equal with GOD...That is what I am talking about....Mary is not sinless, Mary is not a virgin, Mary died, Mary had other children, and Mary was not righteous....
ok you are just refuting with
ok you are just refuting with what the bible said. you cant even back it up. i put quotes among quotes here and you have nothin to defend your faith by. i did not put mary as equal with God you very much misunderstood me. now who is the one acting like a baby. you are putting words in my mouth. these staements are made by people who's live are consumed with the bible. who knows more about and lives everyday of his life according to the bible, than YOU do. so dont come back with comments that you dont have any proof of. and dont put word into my mouth.
Rom 3:10-24 10 As it is
Rom 3:10-24
10 As it is written, There is none righteous, no, not one:
11 There is none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God.
12 They are all gone out of the way, they are together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.
13 Their throat is an open sepulchre; with their tongues they have used deceit; the poison of asps is under their lips:
14 Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness:
15 Their feet are swift to shed blood:
16 Destruction and misery are in their ways:
17 And the way of peace have they not known:
18 There is no fear of God before their eyes.
19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God.
20 Therefore by the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
KJV
PLEASE tell me where it says except Mary....No one is righteous, all have sinned and come short of the glory of GOD....I don't know how to prove it to you..
I have already posted other passages....If your religion believes in something that the bible doesn't than you should go ahead a believe it because it has been around for 2 thousand years....NO...read Romans..
Matthew 1:18-25: The Manner
Matthew 1:18-25: The Manner of His Birth
18 This is how Jesus Christ came to be born. His mother Mary was betrothed to Joseph, but before they came to live together she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit.
19 Her husband Joseph, being a man of honor and wanting to spare her publicity, decided to divorce her informally.
20 He had made up his mind to do this when the angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because she has conceived what is in her by the Holy Spirit.
21 She will give birth to a son and you must name him Jesus, because he is the one who is to save his people from their sins.
22 Now all this took place to fulfill the words spoken by the Lord through the prophet:
23 The virgin will conceive and give birth to a son
and they will call him Emmanuel
a name which means God-is-with-us.'
24 When Joseph woke up he did what the angel of the Lord had told him to do: he took his wife to his home
25 and, THOUGH HE HAD NOT HAD INTERCOURSE WITH HER, she gave birth to a son; and he named him Jesus.
Matthew 2:19-23
19After Herod's death, the angel of the Lord appeared in a dream to Joseph in Egypt
20 and said, "Get up, take the child and his mother with you and go back to the land of Israel, for those who wanted to kill the child are dead."
21 So Joseph got up and, taking the child and his mother with him, went back to the land of Israel.
THER YOU HAVE IT MORE BIBLE VERSUS FOR YA!!!!
The book of Romans, which was
The book of Romans, which was written by the Apostle Paul, was obviously written to the "Roman Christians". They were for the most part, Gentiles, though there were some Jews. The Romans knew of the Jewish laws, or at least they were aware of them. Paul starts out talking about the Jewish laws, going over the advantages and disadvantages, but never commanding the gentiles to keep them.
The point here in the first three chapters is that sin affects everyone, even the "law obeying" Jews. He stated this b/c the jews thought thatsin did not affect them. Mary had died way before Paul was making his POINT TO THE ROMAN CHRISTIANS The law only showed humanity what sin was, but never did anything about it. Keeping the law only reminded them that they were sinners, but did nothing more. Romans 3:19-20 says "Obviously, the law applies to those whom it was given, for its purpose is to keep people from having excuses and to bring the entire world into judgment before God. For no one can ever be made right in God's sight by doing what his law commands. For the more we know Gods law, the clearer it becomes that we aren't obeying it."
You prayer for the welfare of
You prayer for the welfare of a person not to that person.Praying to a person is bypassing CHRIST and commiting blasphmey and sacralige.